Re: [gothic-l] Re: is þar sind correct as they are?

OSCAR HERRE duke.co@sbcglobal.net [gothic-l] gothic-l at yahoogroups.com
Sun Mar 1 17:35:16 UTC 2015


you should have taken lessons dude...... 


On Sunday, March 1, 2015 11:31 AM, "Dicentis a roellingua at gmail.com [gothic-l]" <gothic-l at yahoogroups.com> wrote:
  


  
No, they are is "sind". Where in the bible or Skeireind is sindamma attested? 

Op zondag 1 maart 2015 heeft OSCAR HERRE duke.co at sbcglobal.net [gothic-l] <gothic-l at yahoogroups.com> het volgende geschreven:
>  
>
> they are dude......
>
> On Sunday, March 1, 2015 11:12 AM, "Dicentis a roellingua at gmail.com [gothic-l]" <gothic-l at yahoogroups.com> wrote:
>
>
>  
> Sindamma? What's that supposed to mean?
>
> Op zondag 1 maart 2015 heeft OSCAR HERRE duke.co at sbcglobal.net [gothic-l] <gothic-l at yahoogroups.com> het volgende geschreven:
>>  
>>
>> sindamma would be better....
>>
>> On Sunday, March 1, 2015 10:35 AM, "Dicentis a roellingua at gmail.com [gothic-l]" <gothic-l at yahoogroups.com> wrote:
>>
>>
>>  
>> I always use "sind" or "ist", someone told me however that þar ist or þar sind can be used as meaning there is or there are too, like:
>> There is a man which works.
>>
>> But where is this attested except for in modern Germanic languages, and isn't it better to use what the Bible uses?
>>
>>
>
>   
 
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