[gothic-l] Re: is þar sind correct as they are?

[Dicentis a roellingua@gmail.com [gothic-l]]

I studied Braunes grammar and Wrights book and I read a lot in the Gothic
bible, and you tell me to take lessons lol, where did you read that
nonsense of sindamma.

Op zondag 1 maart 2015 heeft OSCAR HERRE duke.co at sbcglobal.net [gothic-l] <
gothic-l at yahoogroups.com> het volgende geschreven:
>
>
> you should have taken lessons dude......
>
> On Sunday, March 1, 2015 11:31 AM, "Dicentis a roellingua at gmail.com
[gothic-l]" <gothic-l at yahoogroups.com> wrote:
>
>
>
> No, they are is "sind". Where in the bible or Skeireind is sindamma
attested?
>
> Op zondag 1 maart 2015 heeft OSCAR HERRE duke.co at sbcglobal.net [gothic-l]
<gothic-l at yahoogroups.com> het volgende geschreven:
>>
>>
>> they are dude......
>>
>> On Sunday, March 1, 2015 11:12 AM, "Dicentis a roellingua at gmail.com
[gothic-l]" <gothic-l at yahoogroups.com> wrote:
>>
>>
>>
>> Sindamma? What's that supposed to mean?
>>
>> Op zondag 1 maart 2015 heeft OSCAR HERRE duke.co at sbcglobal.net
[gothic-l] <gothic-l at yahoogroups.com> het volgende geschreven:
>>>
>>>
>>> sindamma would be better....
>>>
>>> On Sunday, March 1, 2015 10:35 AM, "Dicentis a roellingua at gmail.com
[gothic-l]" <gothic-l at yahoogroups.com> wrote:
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>> I always use "sind" or "ist", someone told me however that þar ist or
þar sind can be used as meaning there is or there are too, like:
>>> There is a man which works.
>>>
>>> But where is this attested except for in modern Germanic languages, and
isn't it better to use what the Bible uses?
>>>
>>>
>>
>>
>
> 
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