Re: [gothic-l] Re: is þar sind correct as they are?

[Johann Dröge anheropl0x@gmail.com [gothic-l]]

Whether or not it is taken from Greek, I can not say. But it makes sense to
me. Russian actually does kind of the same thing, but obviously Russian is
not close to Gothic... not unless you want to get into a large debate lol.

The Germanic languages that I know seem to all have their own way for
stating the existence of something. For example, German's "es gibt" is
quite different from English "there is/are"

Es gibt = it gives
Det finns = I'm gonna go out on a limb and say that it means something like
"it finds"? I don't speak Swedish yet. :c
Það er = Much closer to English there is

On Sun, Mar 1, 2015 at 12:01 PM, Dicentis a roellingua at gmail.com [gothic-l]
<gothic-l at yahoogroups.com> wrote:

>
>
> Yes Johann, you confirm what I thought. An admin of the Gothic wiki told
> me that thar ist for existence is fine, but I disagreed with him because I
> can't find that in the Gothic Bible. But is it possible that "ist" is taken
> over from the original Greek and there is for existence is used in other
> early Germanic languages?
>
> Op zondag 1 maart 2015 heeft Johann Dröge anheropl0x at gmail.com [gothic-l]
> <gothic-l at yahoogroups.com> het volgende geschreven:
> >
> >
> > Oscar is a fucking idiot.
> >
> >
> > Back to the topic, not making up fake words and claiming others should
> "take lessons"...
> >
> > I just use ïst or sind. Your example is a little bit difficult to do
> directly, but I might write it as:
> > Manna waurkjands/a ïst.
> >
> > But! If you are actually trying to point out his/her/their location
> (There is a working man, as opposed to here is a working man) then þar or
> jainar can be used. But in English, the phrase "there is/are" can be used
> to simply state the existence of something, without referring to any actual
> location.
> >
> > On Sun, Mar 1, 2015 at 11:42 AM, Dicentis a roellingua at gmail.com
> [gothic-l] <gothic-l at yahoogroups.com> wrote:
> >>
> >>
> >>
> >> I studied Braunes grammar and Wrights book and I read a lot in the
> Gothic bible, and you tell me to take lessons lol, where did you read that
> nonsense of sindamma.
> >>
> >> Op zondag 1 maart 2015 heeft OSCAR HERRE duke.co at sbcglobal.net
> [gothic-l] <gothic-l at yahoogroups.com> het volgende geschreven:
> >> >
> >> >
> >> > you should have taken lessons dude......
> >> >
> >> > On Sunday, March 1, 2015 11:31 AM, "Dicentis a roellingua at gmail.com
> [gothic-l]" <gothic-l at yahoogroups.com> wrote:
> >> >
> >> >
> >> >
> >> > No, they are is "sind". Where in the bible or Skeireind is sindamma
> attested?
> >> >
> >> > Op zondag 1 maart 2015 heeft OSCAR HERRE duke.co at sbcglobal.net
> [gothic-l] <gothic-l at yahoogroups.com> het volgende geschreven:
> >> >>
> >> >>
> >> >> they are dude......
> >> >>
> >> >> On Sunday, March 1, 2015 11:12 AM, "Dicentis a roellingua at gmail.com
> [gothic-l]" <gothic-l at yahoogroups.com> wrote:
> >> >>
> >> >>
> >> >>
> >> >> Sindamma? What's that supposed to mean?
> >> >>
> >> >> Op zondag 1 maart 2015 heeft OSCAR HERRE duke.co at sbcglobal.net
> [gothic-l] <gothic-l at yahoogroups.com> het volgende geschreven:
> >> >>>
> >> >>>
> >> >>> sindamma would be better....
> >> >>>
> >> >>> On Sunday, March 1, 2015 10:35 AM, "Dicentis a roellingua at gmail.com
> [gothic-l]" <gothic-l at yahoogroups.com> wrote:
> >> >>>
> >> >>>
> >> >>>
> >> >>> I always use "sind" or "ist", someone told me however that þar ist
> or þar sind can be used as meaning there is or there are too, like:
> >> >>> There is a man which works.
> >> >>>
> >> >>> But where is this attested except for in modern Germanic languages,
> and isn't it better to use what the Bible uses?
> >> >>>
> >> >>>
> >> >>
> >> >>
> >> >
> >> >
> >
> >
> > --
> > Glaðliga ríða Noregs męnn til Hildar þings.
> >
> >
>  
>



-- 
*Glaðliga ríða Noregs męnn til Hildar þings.*
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