Loans adopted and adapted from inflecting languages

[Gordon Whittaker]

----------------------------Original message----------------------------
Dear HISTLINGs,

I have been looking for good data, descriptions and discussions in
the literature with regard to what happens when languages
(inflecting and non-inflecting) borrow terms from an inflecting
language. I am particularly interested in instances not simply
limited to borrowings from Latin and Greek into Germanic, but
would be grateful for any references to detailed presentations,
including the latter.
Put simply, my question is: where (into what languages) is the
stem minus inflection usually borrowed, where a nominative or
oblique case, where more than one case (for the same word as
variants, or in different words)?

Thanks in advance!
Best wishes,
Gordon Whittaker