/m/ in 1st Person Pronouns

[Glen Gordon]

DLW:
 Please try to remain calm, Mr. Gordon.
 Actually the study I am thinking of showed, as I now recall, a
 tendency for 1st person pronouns to have nasals.  The matter of /m/
 or /n/ was not, and to my knowledge has not been, adressed.  My
 "mama" thing is just a guess at what lies behind the facts.

I'm sorry if I seemed wrought with hypertension, but I just do not think
that this is an idea that should be considered. It is logically flawed
from the get-go. There couldn't possibly be any way for this hypothesis
to be realistically tested in a scientific way and amounts to nothing
more than a fantasy concocted by linguists who are not good at what they
do. Can you explain to me how this could be credibly tested? No? I
thought not :)

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Glen Gordon
glengordon01 at hotmail.com