/m/ in 1st Person Pronouns

[David L. White]

Glen Gordon wrote:

> I'm sorry if I seemed wrought with hypertension, but I just do not think
> that this is an idea that should be considered. It is logically flawed
> from the get-go. There couldn't possibly be any way for this hypothesis
> to be realistically tested in a scientific way and amounts to nothing
> more than a fantasy concocted by linguists who are not good at what they
> do. Can you explain to me how this could be credibly tested? No? I
> thought not :)

        A good part of what we do in historical linguistics cannot be
tested, as researchers in ther fields would use that term.  But if what I am
suggesting is true, then 1st person pronouns in /m/ should be more common
than those in /n/.  As far as I know, nothing has been done on this.  By the
way, how can "the mama syndrome" be tested?

                                                                DLW