Celtic Influence Revisited

[JoatSimeon at aol.com]

>iffr762 at utxvms.cc.utexas.edu writes:

>The proposition that OE was a class dialect is to some extent more assumption
>than conclusion.  No, this does not make the argument circular.

-- actually, it does.

>There is evidence, such as the forms and usages found in ME texts

-- a hypothesis that the nobility were speaking OE and the commonality ME is,
to put it mildly, a wild violation of Occam's Razor.

>1) That OE was a class dialect.

-- no evidence.

>our general knowledge of socio-linguistics and secondary language acquisition,

-- small populations of preliterate conquerors do not successfully impose
their speech.

Or the French, Spanish and Italian populations would be speaking Germanic
languages.

What did the Anglo-Saxons have that the Franks, Vandals, and Goths didn't?