Dating the final IE unity

[X99Lynx at aol.com]

In a message dated 2/2/00 12:43:52 PM, JoatSimeon at aol.com wrote:
[objecting to Renfrew's 4000BC date for an 'early IE language' in western
Europe that was an ancestor of Celtic]

<<The IE languages when first encountered are NOT DIFFERENTIATED ENOUGH to
have been separated by that depth of time!>>

Is this differentiation is quantifiable?   Are you sure it works in your
favor?

Let's try this.  [As much as 5500 years might separate Anatolian and wide PIE
from the above languages.  But I'm going with non-Anatolian PIE and a 5000BC
date because the subject is Celtic.]

Following Renfrew, roughly 4000 years separates non-Anatolian PIE from
Mycenaean (1200BC), Sanskrit (1000BC?) and Latin (500BC).  How
'differentiated' are those three languages?  On a scale of 1 to 10?

Using the 3300BC date of last unity:
- roughly 2000 years would separate PIE from Hittite (1600BC), Mycenaean
(1200BC) and Sanskrit (1000BC?).  Again, degree of differentiation, 1-10?
- roughly 3500 years would separate PIE from Germanic (500AD), Tocharian
(500AD), Old Irish (700AD) Armenian (500AD) and Church Slavonic (800AD).  How
differentiated are these languages - 1 to 10?

And you say there is too little differentiation for Renfrew's scenario to be
true?

Some would say that there is too much differentiation for the 3300BC date to
be correct!!!!

But once again, based on any objective standard at all, what is the measure
of differentiation and how do you apply it against the ancient IE languages
so you know what date is too much and what is just enough?  <<<< A very
specific question!

Regards,
Steve Long