Goths

[David L. White]

> I would not worry much about Latin /o/ for Gmc. /u/, as at that time short
> /u/ and /o/ probably already had merged in Vulgar Latin.

        According to what was said long back, the earliest attestation of
"o" in Latin was 250 (or was that 150) B.C., which would (I think) be too
early for this change.  However, I am not entirely sure that the "facts" are
right here.   A brief look at Lehmann's work (while standing in someone
else's office) showed that the earliest Latin form had "u".  Perhaps there
has been some sort of slip here.  Can someone with access to Lehmann's work
straighten us out here, if we need it?

Dr. David L. White