Greeks by way of Anatolia?

[Mark Odegard]

On 11 Feb 01, at 11:11, Shilpi Misty Bhadra wrote:
> I am examining the evidence of both theories of the
> Greeks arriving from the northern Balkan states vs.
> Anatolia. My goal is to be as objective and fair as
> possible. I have read Drews' the Coming of the Greeks,
> among other relevant texts, but I am searching for
> more.

There is an article in the (now somewhat dated) current
or immediately previous issue of _JIES_ that makes a
sidelong comment about how Greece and Bulgaria were
essentially uninhabited for some centuries prior to c.
3200 BCE (a mixture of climate and a sea level that was
significantly above present). Europe did get abruptly
colder ca. Oetzi. The general thrust of the article is
that we might look to place proto-Greek in Northern
Greece about this time (nothing is said in this article
about Anatolian).

The idea, I think, is that there were two Greeces, that
of the north, and that from Attica South thru and past
the Isthmus. In the North, you had uncouth late-PIE-
speaking goatherds and shepherds, while in the south,
you had non-IE-speaking Cycladic-etc based cultures.
Later on (the 'Dorian invasions'), the Greeks imposed
themselves on the South.

To have the Greeks enter Greece via Anatolia, you have
to explain why there is no proveable Anatolian 'stratum
in Greek.

--
Mark Odegard
laura at rconnect.com