A question about Greek or Latin

[Miguel Carrasquer Vidal]

On Fri, 2 Mar 2001 19:43:28 -0600, "proto-language"
<proto-language at email.msn.com> wrote:

>From: "Xavier Delamarre" <xavier.delamarre at free.fr>
>Sent: Saturday, February 24, 2001 11:30 AM

><snip>

>The verbal causative-iterative suffixe has in PIE the form -iyo-/-e,
>added to the root in the o grade (giving a: in Sanskrit after Lex
>Bartholomae) : *wirto: / *wortiyo: ; *men(o:) / *moniyo: ; *sed(o:) /
>*sodiyo: etc.

>[PR]

>What would you say to the alternate explanation that the causative formant is
>*-ye, and that its addition shifted the stress-accent one syllable to the
>right, preserving (or re-instating) an otherwise lost final vowel of the root?

What would you say to the alternate alternate explanation that the
causative formant is merely an agglutinatated verb *[h1]ey-e- (= Hitt.
iy-a-mi etc. "I do/make")?  The Vedic causatives in -paya would
confirm this nicely, if Anatolian had had a form *piya- with pre-verb
*pe- (unfortunately, it hasn't: pai-mi (*pe-h1ei-mi) is "to go" and
pehhi/pai- (*pe-h2ai-h2[a]i) is "to give").

=======================
Miguel Carrasquer Vidal
mcv at wxs.nl