A question about Greek or Latin
petegray at btinternet.com
Fri Mar 9 20:02:19 UTC 2001
>What would you say to the alternate explanation that the causative formant is
>*-ye, and that its addition shifted the stress-accent one syllable to the
>right, preserving (or re-instating) an otherwise lost final vowel of the root?
I would ask which explanation were the simpler. And alas, positing an
"otherwise lost" vowel just for causatives alone seems to me less simple
than positing a suffix -eye/o-.
I then ask which explanation is the better, and alas, I prefer the simpler.
More information about the Indo-european