A question about Greek or Latin
petegray at btinternet.com
Sat Mar 17 08:38:42 UTC 2001
> What would you say to the alternate alternate explanation that the
> causative formant is merely an agglutinatated verb *[h1]ey-e-
The suggestion that it might be causes me no problem; the assertion that it
is so would need proof.
I'm happy with the idea that all suffixes began life as independent
morphemes way back in early Ur-pre-proto-pre-PIE. I think you mean more
than that, so we would need to find firm evidence for:
(a) the existence of such a verb
(b) the use of such a verb as a causative
(c) the acceptance of this explanation as better than any alternative.
What about the "going" root Pokorny 296 *ei / *ia: ?
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