[Lexicog] literal vs figurative meanings

[Peter Kirk]

On 24/03/2004 21:38, Kenneth Keyes wrote:

> Dear Friends,
>
> How would you recommend handling a word where the figurative meaning
> is more commonly used than the literal meaning?
>
> I have in mind the word sïbaɣa "customary portion" (of meat) fig.
> "inheritance". In the case of this word, the set expression sïbaɣasïn
> aldï should be translated "he received appropriate punishment", "he
> got his just deserts", "he got what was coming to him" "he got what he
> deserved", etc.  This set expression has become the primary
> environment in which this word is used.  Should this be treated as an
> additional sense, or a separate headword? Should the figurative
> meaning be listed ahead of the literal meaning?
>
If the primary sense of the word is food, shouldn't that be "he got his
just desserts"?  :-) Seriously, the English word "desert" with stress on
the second syllable, meaning something deserved, is used only in that
fixed expression. Although it is a homograph of "desert" = dry area
where not much grows (stress on first syllable), it is a homophone (at
least in my British dialect) of "dessert" = sweet course at the end of a
meal.

Sorry, that doesn't help much with Ken's question, but it seemed
interesting.

--
Peter Kirk
peter at qaya.org (personal)
peterkirk at qaya.org (work)
http://www.qaya.org/




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