[Lexicog] Re: The irony of thou

[Bill Poser]

It seems natural to associate the rise of the tu/usted type of distinction
with feudalism, but note that societies with distinctions between nobility
and commoners developed in Europe long before we see this linguistic
distinction. The Roman Empire, for example, begins at the latest in 27 BCE
(some people date it to Caesar's appointment as dictator in 44 BCE).
Most of Europe was feudal in the Dark Ages but the tu/usted distinction seems
to appear only well into the Middle Ages. So, it certainly seems to
be the case that you don't get such distinctions in egalitarian societies, but
it isn't as if they arise rapidly in hierarchical societies.

On another aspect of this, I knew a French couple in which the
husband used tu toward his wife while she used vous toward her
husband. Even the oldest people I know regarded this as odd.
It isn't clear if it is really archaic or just idiosyncratic.
The man was 15 years older than his wife, who was his former
secretary, and of a rather authoritarian bent. (He subscribed to
the newspaper of the monarchist-fascist movement and expressed
agreement with its editorials.)

In French there is also interesting variation in how you address
older members of the family. In many families children address
their parents as vous but their aunts and uncles as tu.

Bill



 
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