[Lingtyp] wordhood

David Gil gil at shh.mpg.de
Fri Nov 17 14:41:33 UTC 2017


Just to clarify: I chose these five phenomena pretty much randomly, as 
examples of the kinds of phenomena that people might use in order to 
justify a language-specific category of Word in some language or 
another.  So they were clearly not meant to be exhaustive.

But they also weren't meant to constitute a comparative concept. What I 
am suggesting might constitute a comparative concept of word is a 
certain formal property shared by language-specific analyses positing 
language-specific phonological domains motivated by language-specific 
bundles of phenomena such as these five and numerous others.  That 
formal property boiling down essentially to the familiar idea (shared, I 
believe, by many of us) of a unit of size intermediate between that of 
morpheme and of phrase.

David


On 17/11/2017 20:22, Dryer, Matthew wrote:
>
> I think that these five phenomena can be considered a single 
> comparative concept only if they are exhaustive in the sense that 
> there cannot be any other phenomena that are arguably instances of the 
> intended higher order concept they are instances of. In other words, 
> it is not enough that the phenomena share something in common. 
> Otherwise, we really have a disjunctive definition in disguise. After 
> all, Martin’s meggle people all share the property of being people. It 
> is not immediately obvious, however, that these five phenomena share 
> some property to the exclusion of all others.
>
> But I am puzzled by Martin’s asking whether there is evidence for such 
> an abstract property. It’s not clear what it would mean for there to 
> be evidence for such a property. One needs to give an argument, 
> perhaps, but surely not evidence.
>
> Matthew
>
> From: Lingtyp <lingtyp-bounces at listserv.linguistlist.org 
> <mailto:lingtyp-bounces at listserv.linguistlist.org>> on behalf of 
> Martin Haspelmath <haspelmath at shh.mpg.de <mailto:haspelmath at shh.mpg.de>>
> Date: Wednesday, November 15, 2017 at 7:53 PM
> To: "lingtyp at listserv.linguistlist.org 
> <mailto:lingtyp at listserv.linguistlist.org>" 
> <lingtyp at listserv.linguistlist.org 
> <mailto:lingtyp at listserv.linguistlist.org>>
> Subject: Re: [Lingtyp] wordhood
>
> Christian Lehmann's paper on concepts and categories can be read as
> supporting the idea that comparative concepts can also be used for
> describing languages, but in a recent extended exchange with him, I
> understood that he actually supports the idea that structural
> descriptions and tertia comparationis (= comparative concepts) are on a
> different level.
>
> In any event, we seem to agree mostly that disjunctive definitions are
> "pointless" or even "incoherent" (as I have put it).
>
> David wants to argue that the diverse phenomena in different languages
> can be seen as reflecting some more abstract formal property. So for
> example, all of (1)-(5) could be seen to reflect phonological
> "bondedness" (or "same prosodic domain"):
>
> (1) vowel harmony
> (2) tone sandhi
> (3) progressive ATR assimilation
> (4) vowel reduction
> (5) preoralization of final nasals
>
> But my question is: Is there independent evidence for the existence of
> this abstract formal property?
>
> To go back to my absurd example of "meggle people": I could set up an
> abstract feature [megglehood] and claim that the various observable
> properties (Huawei smartphone, Mendelssohn music, taxi-driving) are just
> manifestations of this abstract feature.
>
> So is there reason to think that (1)-(5) are different? Well, for
> (1)-(3), one can give a substantive reason for their coherence: They are
> all assimilatory (though I'm not sure about tone sandhi). Intuitively,
> elements that are assimilated to each other have a strong "bond", so I
> would find it OK to regard them as manifestations of an abstract feature
> [bondedness].
>
> But (4)-(5) are not – they are merely restricted to particular domains,
> like all other grammatical rules. To the extent that different
> phonological rules appeal to the same domain, this gives us reasons to
> say that the domain has a privileged existence within the language
> (though even domains that are relevant only for one rule must be part of
> the grammar). But I don't see how such domains can serve as comparative
> concepts, if the reasons for setting them up are different from language
> to language.
>
> (Again, as I said earlier: Comparative concepts must eventually be based
> on substance – phonetic substance or semantic substance.
> Language-particular abstract concepts such as domains are not good for
> comparison.)
>
> Best,
> Martin
>
>
> On 15.11.17 10:25, Peter Arkadiev wrote:
>
>     Thank you, David, this methodological (and theoretical) point of
>     is utmost importance. I guess the point Christian Lehmann makes in
>     his recent paper
>     https://www.christianlehmann.eu/publ/lehmann_ling_concepts_categories.pdf
>     is very similar in spirit.
>
>     Best regards,
>
>     Peter
>
>     -- 
>     Peter Arkadiev, PhD
>     Institute of Slavic Studies
>     Russian Academy of Sciences
>     Leninsky prospekt 32-A 119991 Moscow
>     peterarkadiev at yandex.ru <mailto:peterarkadiev at yandex.ru>
>     http://inslav.ru/people/arkadev-petr-mihaylovich-peter-arkadiev
>
>
>     15.11.2017, 09:07, "David Gil" <gil at shh.mpg.de
>     <mailto:gil at shh.mpg.de>>:
>
>         In response to Bill's ...
>
>         On 14/11/2017 23:37, William Croft wrote:
>
>                A definition “variably interpreted in each language” is
>             a disjunctive
>                definition. If I use fact A to define ‘word’ in
>             Language X, fact B to
>                define ‘word’ in Language Y, and fact C to define
>             ‘word’ in Language
>                Z, then ‘word’ is defined as “defined by either A or B
>             or C”. Or else
>                ‘word’ means something different in Languages X, Y and
>             Z, i.e. it is a
>                language-specific concept, and the fact that it’s
>             called ‘word’ in
>                each language is just a coincidence.
>
>         Sorry, but I just don't get this. If language X has a significant
>         pattern involving, say, vowel harmony and some idiosyncratic rule
>         preoralizing final nasals, language Y has a structurally somewhat
>         different pattern involving tone sandhi and progressive ATR
>         assimilation, while language Z makes use of patterns of stress
>         and vowel
>         reduction to define particular phonological domains, then they're
>         obviously as different from each other as we all know
>         languages to be.
>         So yes, if John describes X as having an X-Word, Mary
>         describes Y as
>         having a Y-Word, and Bill describes Z as having a Z-Word, then
>         these are
>         indeed three language-specific and (in one sense of the word)
>         incommensurate notions.
>
>         And sure, defining a would-be comparative concept of word
>         disjunctively,
>         as X-Word OR Y-Word OR Z-Word OR ... would be unrevealing and
>         rather
>         pointless. (I was going to say "uninteresting", but that
>         sounded too
>         Chomskyan.) However, and here's the rub, there is no
>         principled reason
>         why it should not be possible to take John, Mary and Bill's
>         descriptions
>         of X, Y and Z and abstract away from them a shared formal
>         property which
>         we then might choose to refer to as a comparative concept of
>         word. Yes,
>         the comparative concept of word would be "variably interpreted
>         in each
>         language", but no, the definition of the comparative concept
>         would not
>         involve disjunctions; it would simply obtain at a higher level of
>         abstraction than the language-specific phenomena that formed
>         the basis
>         for the original three language-specific descriptions. (Such
>         abstractions are the bread and butter of our work as
>         typologists, just
>         stop and think for a moment how many cycles of abstraction are
>         involved
>         in a comparative concept such as "passive".) And crucially, it
>         need not
>         necessarily involve the kind of "clustering" that Martin was
>         taking about.
>
>         This is what I am trying to do with my proposed definition of
>         comparative-concept word. Granted, the proof of the pudding is
>         in the
>         eating ... and I'm still a bit of a way from getting my
>         definition to
>         work, by which I mean being both implementable and
>         interesting. But my
>         point here and now is not to defend my (or any other)
>         definition of
>         word, but merely to argue that there is nothing incoherent in the
>         attempt to define a comparative concept of word — even for
>         those of us
>         (myself included) who share a radically relativist view of
>         linguistic
>         typology.
>
>         David
>
>         --
>         David Gil
>
>         Department of Linguistic and Cultural Evolution
>         Max Planck Institute for the Science of Human History
>         Kahlaische Strasse 10, 07745 Jena, Germany
>
>         Email: gil at shh.mpg.de <mailto:gil at shh.mpg.de>
>         Office Phone (Germany): +49-3641686834
>         Mobile Phone (Indonesia): +62-81281162816
>
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>
> -- 
> Martin Haspelmath (haspelmath at shh.mpg.de <mailto:haspelmath at shh.mpg.de>)
> Max Planck Institute for the Science of Human History
> Kahlaische Strasse 10
> D-07745 Jena
> &
> Leipzig University
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-- 
David Gil

Department of Linguistic and Cultural Evolution
Max Planck Institute for the Science of Human History
Kahlaische Strasse 10, 07745 Jena, Germany

Email: gil at shh.mpg.de
Office Phone (Germany): +49-3641686834
Mobile Phone (Indonesia): +62-81281162816

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