[Lingtyp] Quotations of speech vs. quotations of thoughts

Randy J. LaPolla randy.lapolla at gmail.com
Sat Jan 6 15:19:23 UTC 2018

Dear Denys,
Michael Halliday has explicitly stated that there is a certain order to the development. I’ll attach the pages summarising this view in his 1994 Introduction to Functional Grammar (2nd edition), so you can get the idea.

All the best,
Randy J. LaPolla, PhD FAHA (羅仁地)
Professor of Linguistics and Chinese, School of Humanities 
Nanyang Technological University
HSS-03-45, 14 Nanyang Drive | Singapore 637332
Most recent book:

> On 6 Jan 2018, at 10:52 PM, Denys T. <denys.teptiuk at gmail.com> wrote:
> Dear colleagues (especially those working with quotative markers and reported speech),
> in Erzya (Mordvinic, Uralic), the verb meŕems with the primary meaning ‘say’ is also used to quote thoughts:
> (1) Mon meŕiń, ton Saransat.
> 1sg say.pst.1sg 2sg Saransk.ine.prs.2sg
> ‘I thought (lit. I said), you are in Saransk’ (Aasmäe 2012: 66). 
> However, out of context, the QI-clause Mon meŕiń would likely be interpreted as ‘I said’ and instead of quotation of thoughts one will get the quotation of speech. It is, of course, not a unique thing that one quotative index (clause) can be used to mark different types of reported discourse. I am wondering whether there is cross-linguistic evidence, pointing that the reading ‘I/you/X said’ is prior to the reading ‘I/you/X thought’ in such cases? For instance, notorious I was like to be interpreted out of context as 'I said' rather than 'I thought'? Or that speech verbs are frequently used to mark mental processes, but not vice versa? Is there any hierarchy in the reading of quotations? Are there any studies that would show that one would be prior to another? Is it even reasonable to expect to find something like this? Any suggestions, hints, (language-specific) examples are more than welcome!
> Cheers!
> Have a nice evening! 
> Best wishes from Tartu, 
> Denys Teptiuk
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