[Lingtyp] Quotations of speech vs. quotations of thoughts

[Denys T.]

Dear all!

Thank You very much for provided data, suggestions and hints so far! All of them are extremely helpful! 

Looking forward to expanding my knowledge even more with your help! 

Best wishes, 
Denys 



> On 6 Jan 2018, at 16:52, Denys T. <denys.teptiuk at gmail.com> wrote:
> 
> Dear colleagues (especially those working with quotative markers and reported speech),
> 
> in Erzya (Mordvinic, Uralic), the verb meŕems with the primary meaning ‘say’ is also used to quote thoughts:
> 
> (1) Mon meŕiń, ton Saransat.
> 1sg say.pst.1sg 2sg Saransk.ine.prs.2sg
> ‘I thought (lit. I said), you are in Saransk’ (Aasmäe 2012: 66). 
> 
> However, out of context, the QI-clause Mon meŕiń would likely be interpreted as ‘I said’ and instead of quotation of thoughts one will get the quotation of speech. It is, of course, not a unique thing that one quotative index (clause) can be used to mark different types of reported discourse. I am wondering whether there is cross-linguistic evidence, pointing that the reading ‘I/you/X said’ is prior to the reading ‘I/you/X thought’ in such cases? For instance, notorious I was like to be interpreted out of context as 'I said' rather than 'I thought'? Or that speech verbs are frequently used to mark mental processes, but not vice versa? Is there any hierarchy in the reading of quotations? Are there any studies that would show that one would be prior to another? Is it even reasonable to expect to find something like this? Any suggestions, hints, (language-specific) examples are more than welcome!
> 
> Cheers!
> 
> Have a nice evening! 
> 
> Best wishes from Tartu, 
> Denys Teptiuk

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