[Lingtyp] Does bipolar polysemy exist?

[Maria Koptjevskaja Tamm]

Hi Eitan,
I would like to advertise the following paper that is highly relevant for your question:

Shmelev, Alexei. 2017. Semantic shifts as sources of enantiosemy.

In Juvonen, Päivi & Maria Koptjevskaja-Tamm (eds.), The Lexical Typology of Semantic Shifts. De Gruyter Mouton

https://www-degruyter-com.ezp.sub.su.se/viewbooktoc/product/433753


All the best,
Masha

Prof. Maria Koptjevskaja Tamm
Dept. of linguistics, Stockholm university, 106 91, Stockholm, Sweden
tel.: +46-8-16 26 20 (office)
www.ling.su.se/tamm<http://www.ling.su.se/tamm>
tamm at ling.su.se


On 31 May 2018, at 13:24, Eitan Grossman <eitan.grossman at mail.huji.ac.il<mailto:eitan.grossman at mail.huji.ac.il>> wrote:

In the Sahidic dialect of Coptic (Afroasiatic), ehrai means 'up' and 'down.'


Eitan Grossman
Lecturer, Department of Linguistics/School of Language Sciences
Hebrew University of Jerusalem
Tel: +972 2 588 3809
Fax: +972 2 588 1224

On Thu, May 31, 2018 at 2:15 PM, Mathias Jenny <mathias.jenny at uzh.ch<mailto:mathias.jenny at uzh.ch>> wrote:
In Thai, cʰâj means 'be so', but in literary style it is also used to mean 'not be so'.

Mathias Jenny

mathias.jenny at uzh.ch<mailto:mathias.jenny at uzh.ch>


On Thu, May 31, 2018 at 1:07 PM Giorgio Francesco Arcodia <giorgio.arcodia at unimib.it<mailto:giorgio.arcodia at unimib.it>> wrote:

I don't know if that counts, but: in Italian, ospite means both 'host' and 'guest'. In a given situation, you can't be both, so, (I guess) in a sense this word can be the negation of itself.

Apologies, semantics is not my forte.

Best,

Giorgio
馬振國

2018-05-31 13:03 GMT+02:00 Mattis List <mattis.list at lingpy.org<mailto:mattis.list at lingpy.org>>:
Wouldn't the frequent cases of pronouns or pronoun-like words in French
(personne = "person, nobody", pas = "step, not", etc.) come close to
this notion? And this process has historically also be claimed for other
negation words, like Ancient Greek "ou", if I am not mistaken.

Best,

Mattis

On 2018-05-31 12:57, Joo Ian wrote:
> Dear all,
>
>
>
> I would like to know if the following universal claim holds:
>
>
>
> /There exists no lexeme that can mean X and the negation of X. (For
> example, no lexeme can express “to go” and “to not go”)./
>
>
>
> I wonder if such “bipolar polysemy” exists in any lexeme, because I
> cannot think of any, and whether this claim is truly universal.
>
> I would appreciate to know if there is any counter-evidence.
>
>
>
> From Hong Kong,
>
> Ian Joo
>
> http://ianjoo.academia.edu<http://ianjoo.academia.edu/>
>
>
>
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--
Prof. Dr. Giorgio Francesco Arcodia
馬振國博士 副教授
Università degli Studi di Milano-Bicocca
米蘭比克卡大學
Dipartimento di Scienze Umane per la Formazione
教育學系
Edificio U6 - stanza 4101
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20126 Milano  意大利 米蘭

Tel.: (+39) 02 6448 4946(+39) 02 6448 4946
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