[Lingtyp] Definition of “personal pronoun"

[JOO, Ian [Student]]

Dear Jeremy,

thank you for your explanation. But could you elaborate on your following comment: "However, 3rd person pronoun, if any, is systemically different from demonstratives, interrogatives, and NPs even if the latter can 'refer' to non-1 or non-2 person, such as morphological structures, syntactic behaviors."
How are they different morphosyntactically, and is this morphosyntactic distance cross-linguistically consistent? In other words, is there a morphosyntactic distance that systematically distinguishes 3rd person pronouns from demonstratives?

Ian
On 6 Jul 2021, 3:09 PM +0800, tangzhengda <tangzhengda at 126.com>, wrote:

However, 3rd person pronoun, if any, is systemically different from demonstratives, interrogatives, and NPs even if the latter can 'refer' to non-1 or non-2 person, such as morphological structures, syntactic behaviors.
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