[Lingtyp] A generalization about morphological and syntactic causatives

[Michael Daniel]

Hi Juergen,

I guess this depends very much on how strict you are on defining
periphrastic causatives, to distinguish them from more lexical
constructions with coercive semantics.

Dargwa languages (East Caucasian) tend to have a fully productive
morphological causative that also applies to (di)transitive verbs. Barylnikova
2019 <https://langsci-press.org/catalog/view/225/1607/1659-1> describes a
series of periphrastic constructions that she (as I would also, at least
loosely) qualifies as periphrastic causatives in Mehweb Dargwa. Frankly, I
did not know it was so rare; it did not seem unexpected to me at the time
we edited the book; and I thought, back then, that you would be able to
find similar examples in other East Caucasian languages.

Michael

PS I found it unobvious that you equated causatives from transitive verbs
to indirect causation, but apparently this depends on the definition of
indirect causation and does not directly relate to your question.


ср, 7 июн. 2023 г., 20:57 Juergen Bohnemeyer <jb77 at buffalo.edu>:

> Dear all – It seems that languages with fully productive morphological
> causatives tend to lack syntactic (a.k.a. periphrastic/analytical)
> causatives. By ‘fully productive’, I mean crucially that the causative
> marker can be applied to already transitive (and thus semantically
> causative) bases, and therefore can be used to express indirect causation.
> Examples of languages that have fully productive morphological causatives
> in this sense and lack periphrastic causative constructions include
> Chuvash, Japanese, Hindi/Urdu, and Shawi (Cahuapanan, Peru).
>
>
>
> Two questions about the above generalization:
>
>
>
> (i)                  Are there counterexamples?
>
> (ii)                Are there statements of this generalization in the
> literature?
>
>
>
> Thanks! – Juergen
>
>
>
> Juergen Bohnemeyer (He/Him)
> Professor, Department of Linguistics
> University at Buffalo
>
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