[Lingtyp] Optional determination?
Christian Lehmann
christian.lehmann at uni-erfurt.de
Sat Aug 31 15:31:43 UTC 2024
Oh, if that is the point, then the answer is quite different:
In many languages, a syntagma consisting of a common noun and a syntagma
consisting of a common noun modified by an adjective attribute belong to
the same category, viz. 'nominal', which is a category that can be
modified by an adjectival attribute.
In most languages, a nominal and a nominal determined by a determiner
are different categories because the former, but not the latter can be
determined by a determiner.
I hope this fits your point better.
Christian
------------------------------------------
Am 31.08.24 um 16:12 schrieb Juergen Bohnemeyer:
>
> Dear Christian – No, I don’t share the presupposition you mention at
> all. Rather, there is a specific role of obligatoriness vs.
> optionality in the particular case of determination: if determination
> is optional, then it is presumably the case that both determined
> (i.e., maximal) and non-determined (i.e., non-maximal) noun phrases
> can express arguments. My question is whether there is then any other
> known reason to still treat them as belonging to distinct syntactic
> categories. I hope this makes sense? – Best – Juergen
>
> Juergen Bohnemeyer (He/Him)
> Professor, Department of Linguistics
> University at Buffalo
>
> Office: 642 Baldy Hall, UB North Campus
> Mailing address: 609 Baldy Hall, Buffalo, NY 14260
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> <http://www.acsu.buffalo.edu/~jb77/>
>
> Office hours Tu/Th 3:30-4:30pm in 642 Baldy or via Zoom (Meeting ID
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>
> There’s A Crack In Everything - That’s How The Light Gets In
> (Leonard Cohen)
>
> --
>
> *From: *Lingtyp <lingtyp-bounces at listserv.linguistlist.org> on behalf
> of Christian Lehmann via Lingtyp <lingtyp at listserv.linguistlist.org>
> *Date: *Saturday, August 31, 2024 at 03:57
> *To: *lingtyp at listserv.linguistlist.org
> <lingtyp at listserv.linguistlist.org>
> *Subject: *Re: [Lingtyp] Optional determination?
>
> Dear Jürgen,
>
> before considering your specific question, let me ask about its
> presupposition: If a process is optional, it seems doubtful to you
> whether it can be considered a grammatical process.
>
> Now if something is (structurally) obligatory, it is grammatical. The
> inverse does not hold, because although obligatoriness has been
> regarded by some as the most important feature of grammaticalization,
> it is not the only one. Moreover, there are degrees of
> optionality/obligatoriness (s. Lehmann, /Thoughts on grammaticalization/).
>
> Thus, the grammatical rules concerning determination may say that
> determiners are optional in certain contexts, but obligatory in
> others; that if there is a determiner, it has to go in such and such a
> syntagmatic position; that determiners are chosen from a small closed
> paradigm and cannot be combined syntagmatically; etc. Compare, e.g.,
> adjectives, for which there are such rules, too; but they are less strict.
>
> During the documented history from Vulgar Latin to the modern Romance
> languages, articles have been developping from absent to increasingly
> obligatory. At which point has determination by articles become "a
> grammatical process"?
>
> Best, Christian
>
--
Prof. em. Dr. Christian Lehmann
Rudolfstr. 4
99092 Erfurt
Deutschland
Tel.: +49/361/2113417
E-Post: christianw_lehmann at arcor.de
Web: https://www.christianlehmann.eu
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