11.103, Qs: Czech and Polish Fonts, Implicature

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LINGUIST List:  Vol-11-103. Thu Jan 20 2000. ISSN: 1068-4875.

Subject: 11.103, Qs: Czech and Polish Fonts, Implicature

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1)
Date:  Thu, 20 Jan 2000 09:57:24 +1300
From:  Andrew Carstairs-McCarthy <a.carstairs-mccarthy at ling.canterbury.ac.nz>
Subject:  Czech and Polish Fonts

2)
Date:  Thu, 20 Jan 2000 9:28:11 +0800
From:  Ðíºº³É <hanch-xu at jlonline.com>
Subject:  Implicature

-------------------------------- Message 1 -------------------------------

Date:  Thu, 20 Jan 2000 09:57:24 +1300
From:  Andrew Carstairs-McCarthy <a.carstairs-mccarthy at ling.canterbury.ac.nz>
Subject:  Czech and Polish Fonts

I would like to get hold of Mac-compatible fonts that can handle Czech and
Polish characters and diacritics, in Times New Roman style or similar.  Can
anyone advise, please?


Andrew Carstairs-McCarthy
Associate Professor
Department of Linguistics, University of Canterbury, Private Bag 4800,
Christchurch, New Zealand
phone (work) +64-3-364 2211; (home) +64-3-355 5108
fax +64-3-364 2969
e-mail a.c-mcc at ling.canterbury.ac.nz
http://www.ling.canterbury.ac.nz/adc-m.html


-------------------------------- Message 2 -------------------------------

Date:  Thu, 20 Jan 2000 9:28:11 +0800
From:  Ðíºº³É <hanch-xu at jlonline.com>
Subject:  Implicature

Dear members:

I wonder if  anyone can tell me how Halliday defines his notion of
"meaning potential" and point out the references.
Have anyone done any research into implicature from the systematic functional
grammar? Do think it is possible to use the concept of "meaning potential"
as a point of departure for studying pragmatic meaning of utterance as
implicatum?

My second question concerns one of examples of Grice's. That is
"He is an Englishman; he is, therefore, brave."
Grice considers this utterance as an example of conventional implicature.
He explains that the speaker only "indicated" (so "implied")and did not
"say" that he is brave is the result that he is an Englishman.
I can not understand Grice in this. Result I think is a part of the meaning
components of word "therefore".
So the speaker does say that it is the case. I'm puzzled really.
Recently I read a book of Russian linguistists in which it is said that the
example is based on certain "culture model". I am not a native speaker and
English is not even my major. I am interested if you consider the example
as a represention of "conventional implicature" and why, or it contains no
implicatum at all.

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