LL-L "Language varieties" 2002.04.26 (06) [E]
Lowlands-L
sassisch at yahoo.com
Fri Apr 26 17:55:00 UTC 2002
======================================================================
L O W L A N D S - L * 26.APR.2002 (06) * ISSN 189-5582 * LCSN 96-4226
Web Site: <http://www.geocities.com/sassisch/rhahn/lowlands/>
Rules: <http://www.geocities.com/sassisch/rhahn/lowlands/rules.html>
Posting Address: <lowlands-l at listserv.linguistlist.org>
Server Manual: <http://www.lsoft.com/manuals/1.8c/userindex.html>
Archive: <http://listserv.linguistlist.org/archives/lowlands-l.html>
=======================================================================
A=Afrikaans Ap=Appalachian D=Dutch E=English F=Frisian L=Limburgish
LS=Low Saxon (Low German) S=Scots Sh=Shetlandic Z=Zeelandic (Zeeuws)
=======================================================================
From: "John M. Tait" <jmtait at wirhoose.co.uk>
Subject: LL-L "Language varieties" 2002.04.25 (01) [E/LS]
A couple of comments on Ole Stig's latest posting.
But with Norwegian and Swedish it is different. They
>could easily be construed as different lgs, and indeed often are, but
>they
>are not taught in school from scratch. If taught at all, they are
>subsumed
>under Danish and taught as someting so close to Danish, that they are
>not
>really different lgs. They are also not taught to speak, only to
>understand.
The practical reasons for this are obvious. It could almost be said
that, whereas Norwegian, Swedish and Danish are languages in their own
country, each of them is regarded as a dialect in the other two
countries!
Scots, on the other hand, is also taught only passively - not to be
spoken or written, but only to be read - but in its own country. Thus it
is regarded as a dialect in its own country.
This brings me back to my original proposition - which is that, whatever
linguists, activists, or anyone might say - speech forms are, in
practical terms, regarded as languages when they have a standard written
form.
>
You could not
>call
>Greenlandic or Faroese dialects just because of their political inferior
>status.
Whereas, In English of the 1800s, AmerIndian languages were often
described as 'barbarous dialects'.
Would Faroese not have been described as a dialect before it was given
language status?
John M. Tait.
----------
From: R. F. Hahn <sassisch at yahoo.com>
Subject: Language varieties
John Magnus wrote above:
> Scots, on the other hand, is also taught only passively - not to be
> spoken or written, but only to be read - but in its own country. Thus
> it is regarded as a dialect in its own country.
This also applies in the case of Low Saxon (Low German) in Germany.
Regards,
Reinhard/Ron
==================================END===================================
You have received this because your account has been subscribed upon
request. To unsubscribe, please send the command "signoff lowlands-l"
as message text from the same account to
<listserv at listserv.linguistlist.org> or sign off at
<http://linguistlist.org/subscribing/sub-lowlands-l.html>.
=======================================================================
* Please submit postings to <lowlands-l at listserv.linguistlist.org>.
* Postings will be displayed unedited in digest form.
* Please display only the relevant parts of quotes in your replies.
* Commands for automated functions (including "signoff lowlands-l") are
to be sent to <listserv at listserv.linguistlist.org> or at
<http://linguistlist.org/subscribing/sub-lowlands-l.html>.
* Please use only Plain Text format, not Rich Text (HTML) or any other
type of format, in your submissions
=======================================================================
More information about the LOWLANDS-L
mailing list