LL-L "Phonology" 2006.01.13 (08) [E]

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Fri Jan 13 22:41:41 UTC 2006


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13 January 2006 * Volume 08
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From: Ingmar Roerdinkholder <ingmar.roerdinkholder at WORLDONLINE.NL>
Subject: LL-L "Phonology" 2006.01.13 (06) [E]

Paul, Paul didn't mean the voicing of <t> to <d> but <th> to <dh>, or 
rather from voiceless <th> as in <think> into SW English <dhink> with 
voiced <th> as in <that>. In the Sampa phonetic alphabet he used that is 
[T} > [D}. [T] means voiceless th, and [D] = voiced th.

It was exactly the same question I had: is <th> voiced in SW English as 
well, just like s -> z and f -> v ?  

Ingmar

Paul wrote:
>Paul,
>Southwesterners don't usually voice T or P into D or B, at least initially
>(-time- would be "toim" not "doim"). In medial positions T will either
>remain unvoiced, or sometimes become a glottal st! op. P is pretty much as
>standard.
>
>Paul (the other one).  It'll get confusing if a third joins in.
>
>  Paul Finlow-Bates wrote:
>  > Many southwestern English people habitually voice all consonants, 
it's a
>  > common identifier of the region. For example the county of Somerset is
>  > commonly pronounced "Zummerzet" by its inhabitants.
>  Hello t'other Paul,
>  Yes, you're quite right, of course, I forgot that (nearly) all s's (and
>  f's) get voiced. Does the voicing affect /T/ > /D/? I've never seen this
>  mentioned (because they're not distinguished orthographically? or
>  because it doesn't happen?)

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