LL-L "Phonology" 2009.02.19 (09) [E]

[Lowlands-L List]

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L O W L A N D S - L - 19 February 2009 - Volume 09
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From: Ingmar Roerdinkholder <roerd096 at PLANET.NL>
Subject: Phonology



Hi,
I'm not an expert on Danish phonology, but I think to remember that
intervocal -b-, -d-, -g- , also when originally derived from -p-, -t-, -k-
tend to be more or less vocalized. So -p- => -b- => -v- => -u- (!) etc.
-k- => -g- => -j- or -v/-u- etc. in some cases.
That would mean that they really went through a devoicing process, I guess?
And: that Danish has a striking parallell in French!

Ingmar

Thank you for your response to my discussion of aspiration, Ingmar.

That was a good point about Danish. The link may be Jutish (if you count it
among the Danish varieties). If we are dealing with a continuum or with
Hanseatic influence is another question. I rather suspect it is a case of a
continuum, of an areal feature.

Two things about this:

  1. With the exception of intervocalic *d* (which is realized as a lax
  interdental fricative, i.e. as a lax ("sloppy") [ð]), these Danish
  (including Jutish) consonants are not voiced but are "devoiced" lenis:
*b
  * and *g*, usually represented in descriptions as [b̥] ([b_0]) and
[gÌ ]([g_0])respectively. So they are essentially unaspirated /p/ and
/k/ respectively,
  and they are indeed derived from *p* and *k.* I am contending that,
  technically speaking, they ought to be written *p* and *k* respectively.

•

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