Nahuatl Digest, Vol 39, Issue 5
magnus hansen
magnuspharao at gmail.com
Thu Feb 22 08:22:37 UTC 2007
Many modern dialects turn /n/ into /h/ wordfinally especially after /i/.
This has to count as a kind of devoicing.
magnus
>
> ---------- Forwarded message ----------
> From: "Campbell, R Joe" <campbel at indiana.edu>
> To: Doug Barr <lingoman at mac.com>
> Date: Wed, 21 Feb 2007 13:04:09 -0500
> Subject: Re: [Nahuat-l] Pronunciation Questions
> Doug,
>
> Put me down as one of the people on Nahuat-l who appreciates your
> questions and, who (I hope) has gained from your encouraging us to
> probe what we know and what we don't know.
> Andrews' statement (p. 36) that /m/ becomes [n] (and *voiceless*)
> when "left exposed" at the end of a syllable or vocable is obviously at
> least partially correct. Although /m/ and /n/ contrast before a vowel
> in the same word, they neutralize 1) in word final position (resulting
> in [n]) or 2) before a consonant:
>
> 1
> tlami it ends up
> otlan it ended up
>
> 2
> tzontecomatl head
> tzonteconcocolli headache
>
> The "partially" refers to his claim that the [n] is voiceless. He
> gives no reason that devoicing occurs, nor does he cite a source. This
> isn't fatal, since he frequently makes claims about Nahuatl without the
> kind of evidence which most late 20th century linguists feel compelled
> to -- and then if one examines relevant data, he finds that the support
> is there for Andrews' claim!
> However, I have searched and reflected at length and I have found no
> basis for this "devoicing" claim. Further, I have difficulty in
> imagining it to be true. Now, while this may be due more to the limits
> on my imagination than to the facts of Nahuatl pronunciation, I doubt
> it. Also, I know that we are discussing "classical" Nahuatl, but I
> believe that modern dialects are helpful in inferring what the older
> stages of the language were like. And in spite of having familiarity
> with a number of modern dialects, I have never heard a final voiceless
> nasal. (I have to concede that if they existed, they would be
> relatively hard to heard, but I *listen*!!)
>
>
> > 1. He talks about 'n' and 'w' becoming unvoiced at the end of
> > syllables, but not about 'l'. I've seen elsewhere (on the Net) a
> > statement that 'l' also becomes devoiced, which I gather would sound
> > like the release of 'tl,' i.e. an unvoiced lateral fricative. Is this
> > common? And I assume 'm' at the end of syllables in words like
> > *ipampa* would do the same?
>
> Iztayohmeh,
>
> Joe
>
>
>
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