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Marino
marino at skyway.usask.ca
Sun Jun 17 06:59:18 UTC 2007
"She makes me jealous for her" (1) and "she makes me jealous" (2) mean two
different things, to me.
There may be either 2 or 3 parties to the situation being
described: "she(i) makes me jealous for her(i)" or "she(i) makes me
jealous for her(j)".
(1) This has a benefactive meaning, to me. I am made to feel jealous on
somebody else's behalf, whether that person is the same as the subject of
the sentence, or another person. I don't feel myself to be at a disadvantage.
(2) I am made to feel jealous of her or of somebody else. I am the one
who is made to feel disadvantaged.
The sex of the speaker, in English, would seem to be irrelevant.
Mary
At 03:32 PM 6/16/2007, you wrote:
>Bob, John, Johannes, whoever:
>Does the following gloss "....she makes me jealous for her" (female
>speaker) seem to fit the English notion of "She makes me jealous."??? I
>believe that there was some past discussion on these kind of sentence
>contructions with intransitives & causitive suffixes.
>
>Wáße irókunpi náha aré áma wáñi mínachi ñíthinhingihi ki, Because she has
>all the good looking men all the time, she makes me jealous for/ of her.
>
>ñíthin = jealous
>ñíthinhi = cause one to be jealous
>ñíthin + hin (I/ me) + (for/ to) + hi (causative suffix).
>
>Thanking you in advance for your review(s)
>Jimm
>
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