speed of movement in signs

[Dan Parvaz]

> I think the answer is still yes, they do, because I notice that the
> distance traveled is different for both of them.  Why is that? It is
> as if the overall duration will be the same for both signs - farther
> distances require faster speeds (which is something I'm finding in my
> data).   Perhaps for conservation of cognitive effort, in order to
> maintain a constant processing rate.  I think this has been proposed
> already, by Bellugi & Fischer and Grosjean.

If true, would this be a species of isochrony?

Cheers,

Dan.

____________
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.. .   D A N  P A R V A Z  --  Geek-in-Residence
 U    University of New Mexico Linguistics Dept
 -    dparvaz@{unm.edu,lanl.gov}   505.480.9638