8.1683, Qs: Person Gender,Learning Disability,Arabic,Sexist

The LINGUIST List linguist at linguistlist.org
Mon Nov 24 14:11:44 UTC 1997


LINGUIST List:  Vol-8-1683. Mon Nov 24 1997. ISSN: 1068-4875.

Subject: 8.1683, Qs: Person Gender,Learning Disability,Arabic,Sexist

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=================================Directory=================================

1)
Date:  Thu, 20 Nov 97 07:46:26 -0800
From:  veken <veken at paris7.jussieu.fr>
Subject:  First Person and Gender

2)
Date:  Thu, 20 Nov 1997 21:16:24 -0500
From:  OSBURNEA at CCSUA.CTSTATEU.EDU
Subject:  Foreign Language Learning Disability and Linguistics

3)
Date:  Sat, 22 Nov 1997 13:58:52 -0800
From:  jkcowart at io-online.com (J Kingston Cowart)
Subject:  Arabic Derivation of Spanish "chingar"?

4)
Date:  Mon, 24 Nov 1997 01:53:22 +0100
From:  "Mike FOX-ecki" <mlisecki at friko2.onet.pl>
Subject:  Sexist Language

-------------------------------- Message 1 -------------------------------

Date:  Thu, 20 Nov 97 07:46:26 -0800
From:  veken <veken at paris7.jussieu.fr>
Subject:  First Person and Gender

Many languages have 3rd person gender morphology. Some also have 2nd
person gender opposition (e.g.Semitic). Could anyone please let me know
if they know of languages where gender is also marked on first person
markers ?



-------------------------------- Message 2 -------------------------------

Date:  Thu, 20 Nov 1997 21:16:24 -0500
From:  OSBURNEA at CCSUA.CTSTATEU.EDU
Subject:  Foreign Language Learning Disability and Linguistics

Recently we have discovered that some of the students in our introductory
linguistics course are taking it because they have been exempted from the
university language requirement as a result of a diagnosis of _foreign language
learning disability_.  The Dean has placed them in our course as a substitute
for the requirement.  Anything that gets students into linguistics courses is,
naturally, delightful, but we are wondering about this practice.  Does anyone
have any information about it? Is it a standard procedure at other
institutions?

Andrea Osburne
osburnea at ccsua.ctstateu.edu


-------------------------------- Message 3 -------------------------------

Date:  Sat, 22 Nov 1997 13:58:52 -0800
From:  jkcowart at io-online.com (J Kingston Cowart)
Subject:  Arabic Derivation of Spanish "chingar"?

        I have heard that the Spanish vulgarism "chingar" --
which I am told has overtones of psychological as well as
physical violation, domination, and humiliation (as well as
stabbing penetration by knife or other means) --
derives from an Arabic root.

        1) Are these connotations accurate?

        2) If so, are they found primarily in New World Spanish
(especially Frontera speech along the U.S. - Mexico border)
or are they equally active elsewhere?

        2) Is there any support for the assertion of an Arabic
derivation of the word itself?

Thanks,

J. Kingston Cowart
San Diego, California
<jkcowart at io-online.com>


-------------------------------- Message 4 -------------------------------

Date:  Mon, 24 Nov 1997 01:53:22 +0100
From:  "Mike FOX-ecki" <mlisecki at friko2.onet.pl>
Subject:  Sexist Language

I'm posting this query on behalf of my friend who is writing an MA thesis
under the subject of Sexist Language. Following are some problems she would
like to talk about:
- How do words for women differ from words for men?
- collocations (beautiful woman, woman in the street, etc.)
What's the chance of finding different kinds of collocations with words such
as 'woman', 'girl' in different texts, mainly in the press.
Please, when replying to this query include her name: Margita Walasek as in
the subject field.
tafn mike
======================================================
Mike FOX-ecki       <mlisecki at priv2.onet.pl>
irc [lisu]          <mlisecki at kki.net.edu>
ICQ [4324037]  http://www.polbox.com/m/mlisecki

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