LL-L "Pronomina" 2005.05.15 (04) [E]

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Wed Jun 15 16:07:39 UTC 2005


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From: Sandy Fleming <sandy at scotstext.org>
Subject: "Language varieties" [E]

> From: Ben J. Bloomgren <godsquad at cox.net>
> Subject: LL-L "Language varieties" 2005.05.02 (10) [E]
>
> "thou and thee had given way to your..."
>
> Ron and all, when did English start to throw away its early modern ways
> and
> to go to you you you? It seems so sudden to me. I hear the KJV bible and
> Shakespeare in thees and thous, and I hear anything thereafter without
> them.

It's not as sudden as it seems, you just tend to be used to "you"'s and so
don't notice them as much. Looking at one of Cleopatra's speeches from the
play:

Nay, hear them, Antony:
Fulvia perchance is angry; or, who knows
If the scarce-bearded Caesar have not sent
His powerful mandate to YOU, 'Do this, or this;
Take in that kingdom, and enfranchise that;
Perform 't, or else we damn THEE.'

I'm not sure what this is - does Cleopatra refer to Mark Antony as "you"
while expecting Caesar to refer to him as "thee"? No, because in her very
next speech:

YOU must not stay here longer, your dismission
Is come from Caesar; therefore hear it, Antony.
Where's Fulvia's process? Caesar's I would say? both?
Call in the messengers. As I am Egypt's queen,
THOU blushest, Antony; and that blood of thine
Is Caesar's homager: else so thy cheek pays shame
When shrill-tongued Fulvia scolds. The messengers!

Perhaps Shakespeare was living at a time when both modes of speech were used
and he drew on both of them, perhaps following some principle, or perhaps
just for euphony?

Of course, you mustn't forget that however English may be taught in schools,
forms of "thee", "thy", "thou" are still used in some places in England.

Sandy
http://scotstext.org/

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