Russian grammar query

[Svetlana Grenier]

Dear Paul,

I think your last supposition is correct:  they are referring by 
"pokupatel'" (masculine) to the woman (pokupatel'nitsa) and her family 
members.  That sounds pretty normal.
What does MTIA mean?

Svetlana

Paul B. Gallagher wrote:

> Dear colleagues,
>
> In a contract for sale of an apartment, where the seller is a company
> and the buyer is a woman using privatization vouchers ("чеки"), the
> first paragraph reads as follows in part:
>
>     Продавец передал, а Покупатель прообрел,
>     занимаемую им и членами его семьи квартиру номер ...
>
>     Seller has conveyed, and Buyer has acquired,
>     apartment number ... occupied by him [sic] and
>     his [sic] family members...
>
> Who is this male person occupying the apartment? It can't plausibly be
> the seller/company, because it wouldn't have family members, and it
> can't plausibly be the buyer/woman, because she's not masculine. Or are
> they referring to Покупатель, which is "masculine"?
>
> It's also a little peculiar that they used the past tense (if the
> conveyance has already taken place, who needs the contract?), but that
> isn't my question.
>
> MTIA, due today.   
>

-- 
Svetlana S. Grenier

Associate Professor
Department of Slavic Languages
Box 571050
Georgetown University
Washington, DC 20057-1050
202-687-6108
greniers at georgetown.edu

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