Histling-l Digest, Vol 15, Issue 8
Elitzur Avraham Bar-Asher
barasher at fas.harvard.edu
Wed Mar 26 17:38:36 UTC 2008
Though I'm not familiar with the Iranian material I just wanted to
correct one thing.
Wolfgang said:
As fas as I know, the shift -bb- to
-nb- / -mb- did not take place in Semitic (Aramaic/Hebrew etc.)
this is not true, this dissimilation is a very common phenomenon in
Aramaic (already in Official Aramaic). We encounter for example the
following shift madda'>manda' (knowledge).
In addition the form for sabbath without a final /t/ is the form we
encounter in Jewish Babylonian Aramaic /shabba/ (as final /t/ often
apocopated in this dialect) - and this is where Iranian and Aramaic were
in contact.
Elitzur
--
Elitzur Avraham Bar-Asher
PhD Candidate
Department of Near Eastern Languages and Civilizations
Harvard University
Lecturer in Semitics
Department of Near Eastern Languages and Civilizations
Yale University
barasher at fas.harvard.edu
elitzur.bar-asher at yale.edu
http://www.yale.edu/hebrew/profiles/elitzur.html
On 3/26/2008 1:27 PM, histling-l-request at mailman.rice.edu wrote:
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>Today's Topics:
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> 1. Sabbath (Wolfgang Schulze)
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>
>----------------------------------------------------------------------
>
>Message: 1
>Date: Wed, 26 Mar 2008 18:23:55 +0100
>From: Wolfgang Schulze <W.Schulze at lrz.uni-muenchen.de>
>Subject: [Histling-l] Sabbath
>To: histling-l at mailman.rice.edu
>Message-ID: <47EA86AB.10908 at lrz.uni-muenchen.de>
>Content-Type: text/plain; charset="iso-8859-1"
>
>Dear Colleagues,
>let me ask you to help me with your competence regarding the following
>question: What is the direct source of Persian shanbeh (shambe)
>'Saturday'? My main concern is the representation of Aramic -bb- as -nb
>/ -mb-. I know that in the early Balkan Greek vernacular, this sound
>change has also taken place, but here we have s- and not sh- (resulting
>in things like OHG sambaz-tag etc.). As fas as I know, the shift -bb- to
>-nb- / -mb- did not take place in Semitic (Aramaic/Hebrew etc.). So, my
>question is: Do we have evidence that the shift from shabbath >
>shan/mba(t) > shambe already occurred in Middle Iranian? (as far as I
>remember, MacKenzie's Pahlavi-English Dictionary doesn't mention the
>term, neither does Horn)....
>Thanks for any help, sorry for my ignorance and best wishes,
>Wolfgang
>
>
>
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