Sabbath

[Elitzur Avraham Bar-Asher]

Though I'm not familiar with the Iranian material I just wanted to 
correct one thing.

Wolfgang said: 

As fas as I know, the shift -bb- to 
-nb- / -mb- did not take place in Semitic (Aramaic/Hebrew etc.)

this is not true, this dissimilation is a very common phenomenon in 
Aramaic (already in Official Aramaic). We encounter for example the 
following shift  madda'>manda' (knowledge).
In addition the form for sabbath without a final /t/ is the form we 
encounter in Jewish Babylonian Aramaic /shabba/ (as final /t/ often 
apocopated in this dialect) - and this is where Iranian and Aramaic were 
in contact.
Elitzur

-- 
Elitzur Avraham Bar-Asher
PhD Candidate
Department of Near Eastern Languages and Civilizations
Harvard University

Lecturer in Semitics
Department of Near Eastern Languages and Civilizations
Yale University

barasher at fas.harvard.edu
elitzur.bar-asher at yale.edu

http://www.yale.edu/hebrew/profiles/elitzur.html 



On 3/26/2008 1:27 PM, histling-l-request at mailman.rice.edu wrote:

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>   1. Sabbath (Wolfgang Schulze)
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>----------------------------------------------------------------------
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>Message: 1
>Date: Wed, 26 Mar 2008 18:23:55 +0100
>From: Wolfgang Schulze <W.Schulze at lrz.uni-muenchen.de>
>Subject: [Histling-l] Sabbath
>To: histling-l at mailman.rice.edu
>Message-ID: <47EA86AB.10908 at lrz.uni-muenchen.de>
>Content-Type: text/plain; charset="iso-8859-1"
>
>Dear Colleagues,
>let me ask you to help me with your competence regarding the following 
>question: What is the direct source of Persian shanbeh (shambe) 
>'Saturday'? My main concern is the representation of Aramic -bb- as -nb 
>/ -mb-. I know that in the early Balkan Greek vernacular, this sound 
>change has also taken place, but here we have s- and not sh- (resulting 
>in things like OHG sambaz-tag etc.). As fas as I know, the shift -bb- to 
>-nb- / -mb- did not take place in Semitic (Aramaic/Hebrew etc.). So, my 
>question is: Do we have evidence that the shift from shabbath > 
>shan/mba(t) > shambe already occurred in Middle Iranian? (as far as I 
>remember, MacKenzie's Pahlavi-English Dictionary  doesn't mention the 
>term, neither does Horn)....
>Thanks for any help, sorry for my ignorance and best wishes,
>Wolfgang 
>
>  
>

-- 
Elitzur Avraham Bar-Asher
PhD Candidate
Department of Near Eastern Languages and Civilizations
Harvard University

Lecturer in Semitics
Department of Near Eastern Languages and Civilizations
Yale University

barasher at fas.harvard.edu
elitzur.bar-asher at yale.edu

http://www.yale.edu/hebrew/profiles/elitzur.html 

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