A question about Greek or Latin

[petegray]

>causative and passive verbs
> formations of GREEK or LATIN.

Neither language has a clear passivizing or causative suffix like the
Sanskrit -ya and -aya-, although traces of the original forms can be found.

Latin has reformulated its passive entirely, but based on IE roots,
especially forms in -r, parallels to which occur sporadically, sometimes
with and sometimes without passive meaning, in a number of IE languages.
The -tos participle is the basis of completed passives.

Latin retains a number of roots with causative meaning which show -o- grade
+ -eyo-.   This is identical to the Sanskrit -aya, but is no longer
productive in the language.  Examples incude moneo (cause to be mindful).
There are other causatives with altered vowel, parallel to the forms
sit/seat, fall/fell:  for example cado / caedo, sedeo / se:do.  These are
also not productive.

Greek passives are built mostly from the middle, and for many verb forms the
middle and passive are indistinguishable (in form!) in Greek.  Only the
future and the aorist have distinct passive forms, which appear to be new
formations built on IE elements.   The passive participles are based on
the -menos ending.

Peter