A question about Greek or Latin

[Xavier Delamarre]

le 18/02/01 7:45, NISHIOKA Miki à motoharu1 at hotmail.com a écrit :

> Dear all
> I need a useful piece of information about causative and passive verbs
> formations of GREEK or LATIN. I have learned SANSKRIT and was wondering
> wheter Greek and Latin have the same verbs formation of SANSKRIT. It uses a
> causative or passive verb, which consists of causative or passive affixes
> and verb stems, for the causative or passive expression. If anyone knows a
> good knowledge of either of them, would you please tell me about it
> breifly?

> Thank you.

> Mikcey

    The verbal causative-iterative suffixe has in PIE the form -éyo-/-e,
added to the root in the o grade (giving a: in Sanskrit after Lex
Bartholomae) : *wérto: / *wortéyo: ; *men(o:) / *monéyo: ; *sed(o:) /
*sodéyo: etc.

SANSKRIT ma:nayati = LATIN moneo:
Sk. pla:vayati = OHGerman flouwen (against Sk. plavate , GREEK pleo:)
Sk. sva:payati = Lat. so:pio: = ONorse svefia
Sk. ca:rayati = GREEK poléo: (*kwoléyo:)

etc.

    The passive in the classical languages is a new formation that cannot be
traced to PIE origins

X. Delamarre