Genetic Descent
Leo A. Connolly
connolly at memphis.edu
Fri Jul 6 04:10:25 UTC 2001
Vidhyanath Rao wrote:
>> Neither can we say that _gustar_ and _piacere_ are "passive". What activity
>> is performed, and by whom or what? If neither the meaning nor the form is
>> passive, in what sense can one say that these verbs are?
> I am ignorant of the fine details. What are the etymological origins of
> gustar and piacere?
_piacere_ is from Latin _place:re_ 'please', which had the same syntax:
item liked nominative, person who likes it dative. Pokorny, IEW 831,
connects this Latin _placidus_ 'smooth, calm' and to a lot of rather
semantically unlikely words in other languages. Not being a Latin
etymologist, I can only say that the etymology seems unsatisfactory. but
I have no better suggestion.
_gustar_ comes from Latin _gusta:re_, which has many obvious cognates in
other IE languages. However, _gusta:re_ was construed as an active verb
meaning 'take a taste of something':
Caesar vinum gustavit.
NOM wine-ACC tasted
'Caesar tasted the wine.'
As far as I know, this usage has been lost in Spanish, with _gustar_
adopting both the syntax and meaning of Lat. _place:re_.
> I often get the impression that, as passives so often come from
> resultative/stative constructions, people consider the latter to be
> passives (in origin). I wonder if that is the case here.
I don't quite understand the question. I don't think either comes from
a passive, and unlike _gusta:re_, _place:re_ apparently always was
stative. But are we discussing etymology here or people's perceptions?
Leo Connolly
More information about the Indo-european
mailing list