how about the linguistic preferences

[mostari hind]

hi everybody , 
  i have longly tought about why the speakers regardless of their spoken languages tend to usen and prefer  certain lexis more than others ( conjunctions, idiomatic expressions, ..etc ) even in writing , every one has his favourite stock of words and expressions , 
  what are the origins of such verbal / written preferences ? and how can we lead an inverstigation on it , it seems quite original for me but i don't know how to deal !
   
   
  need anwers 
  best regards 
  Mostari
  Algeria 
Anthea Fraser Gupta <A.F.Gupta at leeds.ac.uk> wrote:
  Christina said:

> Think of Britain. Since the invasion of 
> the Germanic hordes (I am thinking of the Angles and the Saxon), part
of - 
> and that is an important proviso- the population has been steadily 
> involved in some kind of shift

On the other hand, as a result of migration, the England of the 2000s is
more multilingual than the England of my childhood in the 1950s. And
some communities that are large enough and have some geographical
concentration have been able to maintain it.

Anthea 


* * * * *

Anthea Fraser Gupta (Dr)

School of English, University of Leeds, LS2 9JT


NB: Reply to a.f.gupta at leeds.ac.uk

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