Question about head-marked datives
haspelmath at EVA.MPG.DE
Tue Oct 23 11:09:39 UTC 2007
Enrique Palancar writes:
> Needless to say, Spanish, along with other Romance lgs., could count
> as such one language if one takes dative verbal clitics as part of
> verbal inflection.
But note that in Nichols's (1992:49) definition, head-marking may be
affixal or by a clitic, so the Spanish case would definitely count (and
the Greek one, mentioned by Hartmut Haberland, as well).
What we are talking about is (affixal/clitic) verbal person marking with
indirective alignment ("indirect-object alignment", i.e. the P and the T
are treated alike, while the R is treated differently) and an overt
person marker for the R (called "dative person marker"). This type
indeed is not common, cf. Haspelmath (2005), where out of 100 sample
languages only five (Abkhaz, Basque, Yimas, Choctaw, Purépecha) show
See also Gensler 2003 and Siewierska 2003 and 2004 for world-wide
cross-linguistic data and discussion.
Gensler, Orin. 2003. Object ordering in verbs marking two pronominal
objects: Nonexplanation and explanation. Linguistic Typology 7.2. pp.
Haspelmath, Martin. 2005. "Argument marking in ditransitive alignment
types." Linguistic Discovery 3.1:1-21
Siewierska, Anna. 2003. Person agreement and the determination of alignment.
In: Transactions of the Philological Society 101.2: 339-370.
Siewierska, Anna. 2004. Person. Cambridge: Cambridge University Press.
Martin Haspelmath (haspelmath at eva.mpg.de)
Max-Planck-Institut fuer evolutionaere Anthropologie, Deutscher Platz 6
Tel. (MPI) +49-341-3550 307, (priv.) +49-341-980 1616
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