[Lingtyp] languages without X

[Adam Singerman]

I agree with Martin that to state that a given language L "has X" or "lacks
X" makes sense only in a comparative context. If the goal is to describe L
"on its own terms," with as little reference as possible to other languages
/ to the crosslinguistic picture, then "having X" or "lacking X" isn't
really sensical.

But if L is used in a multilingual context, such that monolinguals are not
the norm (if they're around at all), then couldn't stating that L has/lacks
X be very useful for description and analysis? In fact, couldn't stating
that L has/lacks X reflect the speakers' (or signers') knowledge about how
their language differs from the other languages it's in contact with?

All the best,
the other Adam
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