[Lingtyp] uses of first plural exclusive pronouns

[Sandra Auderset]

Dear Kilu,

This is also found elsewhere in the world, although in agreement forms and not in pronouns:
- in Banjal (Central Atlantic; Senegal):	1PL.EXCL = 2PL (agreement with S/A)
- in Udihe (Tungusic, Russia): 		1PL.EXCL = 2PL (agreement with S/A)

However, there is at least one language that collapses first person inclusive with second person in agreement (might helpful for theoretical considerations):
- Cubeo (Tucanoan; Colombia):  		 1PL.INCL = 2 (agreement with S/A; concernces only one of several sets of forms)


Best,
Sandra



> On 23.06.2015, at 14:38, Bill Palmer <bill.palmer at newcastle.edu.au> wrote:
> 
> Dear Kilu
>  
> I’m pretty sure I’ve seen this in a few Meso-Melanesian languages, though I can’t bring to mind off hand which ones. I’ll try to have a look and post again. It’s hard to say why this happens, but I suspect that they are collapsing into a non-3rd person category. I suspect that 1incl is not involved because that category is a little more complex than simply a group of individuals including one or other of the SAPs.
>  
> best
> Bill
>  
> From: Lingtyp [mailto:lingtyp-bounces at listserv.linguistlist.org] On Behalf Of Kilu von Prince
> Sent: Tuesday, 23 June 2015 10:26 PM
> To: Zachary O'Hagan
> Cc: lingtyp at listserv.linguistlist.org
> Subject: Re: [Lingtyp] uses of first plural exclusive pronouns
>  
> Dear Zach, and dear colleagues,
>  
> I'm not aware of the exact phenomenon you're looking for, but I'd like to piggyback on your question, because I have an observation that I find much weirder and have so far not been able to make any sense of:
>  
> In Dalkalaen (Oceanic, spoken in Vanuatu), the first person exclusive pronouns for paucal and plural number are being collapsed with the corresponding second person pronouns. Are there other languages with this property? Does anyone have a theory as to why this might happen?
>  
> Regards,
> Kilu
>  
> On Fri, May 29, 2015 at 1:34 PM, Zachary O'Hagan <zohagan at berkeley.edu <mailto:zohagan at berkeley.edu>> wrote:
> Dear colleagues,
>  
> It is known that first plural inclusive pronouns can be used for polite first- or second-person reference in some languages.  I am searching for instances in any language in which a first plural *exclusive* pronoun can be used for polite *third*-person reference, or for instances in which a third-person pronoun can be shown to originate historically in a first plural exclusive pronoun.  Possible references are much appreciated.
>  
> Regards,
>  
> -Zach O'Hagan
>  
> -- 
> Zachary O'Hagan
> Graduate Student
> Department of Linguistics
> University of California, Berkeley
> 
> 
> 
> 
> 
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