[Lingtyp] Borrowability of prepositions

[Sergey Loesov]

Dear colleagues,

My Neo-Babylonian corpus (an Akkadian variety of 8-7 centuries BC) has a
preposition *la *‘to(wards)’, obviously borrowed from the contemporary
Aramaic. Since Neo-Babylonian was an administrative language of the time,
while Aramaic had no official standing, the borrowing of a preposition
might look weird. What do we know about the ways prepositions are borrowed,
and in particular about linguistic situations that favour this kind of
borrowing? (Note that this was the time of Akkadian-Aramaic bilingualism in
Mesopotamia)

 Thank you very much,

Sergey
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